Is the World Trade Organization not bias towards developed countries?

I know that the WTO is bias towards developed countries, but I'm in a debate class and I need to find evidence that the WTO is not bias towards the developed countries. I need examples and it'll be great if you gave me the site that supports my argument.|||Since it clearly is, it is going to be hard to find evidence that it isn't. And any site that claims it isn't is hardly going to be trustworthy.





If you can skew the argument so that the question is whether the WTO benefits only the developed or also benefits the under-developed, then you have a chance - the under-developed countries have seen benefits.





If you are going to try that route, you might want to start with Stiglitz and Bhagwhati. They focus on the problems with globalization, but argue that fixing it is worth doing because it does have benefits for the under-developed countries.


http://time.dufe.edu.cn/wencong/bhagwati鈥?/a>


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Globalizati鈥?/a>


http://www.columbia.edu/cu/news/vforum/0鈥?/a>





An alternative is to focus on China. China has benefited from WTO membership:


http://unpan1.un.org/intradoc/groups/pub鈥?/a>|||You will never know. But here is a clue. Why don't you do some research why the Doha round cannot move forward. You will find so obvious evidence.